Multiple endocrine neoplasia

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CHAPTER 51

Multiple endocrine neoplasia

1. What are the multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) syndromes?

2. Define MEN-1.

3. Define MEN-2A.

4. Define MEN-2B.

5. How can so many various endocrine organs be affected in these syndromes?

The cells that comprise many endocrine organs are able to decarboxylate various amino acids and convert the molecules to amines or peptides that act as hormones or neurotransmitters. These cells have been classified as amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation (APUD) cells and are considered to be embryologically of neuroectodermal origin. APUD cells contain markers of their common neuroendocrine origin, including neuron-specific enolase and chromogranin A. Neoplastic transformation of APUD cells long after organogenesis is complete appears to result from a germline mutation (loss of a tumor suppressor gene in MEN-1 or mutation of a protooncogene to an oncogene in MEN-2A and MEN-2B) in a gene that is expressed only in neuroectodermal cells. When neuroectodermal cells later migrate to specific developing organs, the genetic mutation similarly is distributed to those organs. This explains the common mutations manifested in this class of neuroendocrine tumors (NETs).

6. What is Wermer syndrome?

7. How common is Wermer syndrome?

8. Is hyperparathyroidism in MEN-1 similar to sporadic primary hyperparathyroidism?

9. What causes the hyperplasia of parathyroid glands affected by MEN-1?

10. Summarize the therapy for hyperplastic parathyroid glands.

Therapy of both sporadic adenomas and MEN-1–associated hyperplastic glands depends on surgical resection. In sporadic primary hyperparathyroidism, removal of the solitary adenoma is curative in 95% of cases. In MEN-1–associated hyperplasia, at least 3.5 hyperplastic glands must be resected to restore normocalcemia. Only 75% of patients are normocalcemic postoperatively; 10% to 25% of patients are rendered hypoparathyroid. Unfortunately, the parathyroid remnants in the patient with MEN-1 have a great propensity to regenerate; 50% of patients become hypercalcemic again within 10 years of surgery. This recurrence rate dictates that surgery be delayed until complications of hypercalcemia are imminent or gastrin levels are elevated, as discussed later. Recurrence may be treated surgically or with cinacalcet, which acts at the calcium-sensing receptor, to reduce parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion.

11. How common is neoplastic transformation of pancreatic islet cells in MEN-1?

12. What types of pancreatic tumors are found in MEN-1 syndrome?

13. What is the most common type of functional pancreatic tumor in MEN-1?

14. Describe the symptoms of gastrinomas associated with MEN-1.

15. What other conditions may cause hypergastrinemia?

16. How are gastrinomas distinguished from other causes of hypergastrinemia?

17. What is the second most common type of functional pancreatic tumor in MEN-1?

18. What other pancreatic tumors may be seen in MEN-1?

19. How are the most common pancreatic tumors of MEN-1 treated?

20. Summarize the approach to treatment of hypoglycemia associated with insulinomas.

21. Which pituitary tumors are associated with MEN-1?

22. What pituitary tumors are most commonly associated with MEN-1?

23. What is the second most common pituitary tumor in MEN-1?

24. What other pituitary tumors may be seen in MEN-1?

25. What causes MEN-1?

26. How is MEN1 diagnosed, and how should a kindred be screened after the proband is identified?

The three means of diagnosing MEN-1 are as follows:

Clinical: Two or more MEN-1–associated tumors

Familial: Patient with one MEN-1–associated tumor and a first-degree relative with MEN-1

Genetic: An asymptomatic carrier of MEN-1 mutation (no biochemical manifestations)

Carriers of the genetic defect must first be clinically identified, the extent of their organ involvement determined, and their family screened for additional carriers of one of the MEN-1 mutations. As mentioned earlier, multiple mutations in the gene coding for menin have been described in patients with MEN-1 and may be used to identify carriers of the disorder. Although mutational analysis was previously restricted to research laboratories, clinical testing for mutations in the MEN-1 gene is now available to detect disease within affected kindreds.

27. At what age should screening begin?

28. Summarize the tests used for screening of MEN-1 individuals.

In known mutant gene carriers, annual testing for calcium, PTH, prolactin, insulin-like growth factor-I (IGF-I), chromogranin A, fasting gastrin, fasting glucose, and insulin levels is recommended. MRI of the pituitary and CT of the abdomen is recommended every 12 to 36 months.

29. What is Sipple syndrome?

30. Is the form of MTC associated with MEN-2A similar to the sporadic form of MTC?

No. MTC results from malignant transformation of the parafollicular cells (or C cells) that normally elaborate calcitonin and are scattered throughout the thyroid gland. MTC accounts for 2% to 10% of all thyroid malignant tumors. The sporadic form of MTC, as described in Chapter 37, is more common (75% of all MTC), occurs in a solitary form (<20% multicentric), and metastasizes to local lymphatics, lung, bone, and liver early in the course of disease (metastasis may occur with primary tumors <1 cm in diameter). Sporadic MTC occurs more commonly in an older population (peak age, 40–60 years) and is usually located in the upper two thirds of the gland.

31. Summarize the essential characteristics of MTC associated with MEN-2A.

32. How common is diarrhea in MTC associated with MEN-2A?

33. How is MEN-2A–associated MTC treated?

34. How is C-cell hyperplasia detected?

35. What is the second most common neoplasm associated with MEN-2A?

36. Summarize the treatment of pheochromocytomas associated with MEN-2A.

37. Is hyperparathyroidism associated with MEN-2A similar to that found in MEN-1?

Yes, but it is encountered much less commonly, involving only 40% of cases.

38. What is the genetic basis for the MEN-2A syndrome?

MEN-2A is caused by an activating mutation of the RET protooncogene located on chromosome 10q11.2. The gene codes for a receptor tyrosine kinase that phosphorylates and activates enzymes critical to cellular development. The ligand that normally activates the tyrosine kinase is glial cell–derived neurotropic factor (GDNF). When GDNF binds, two receptors bind together (homodimerization), and phosphorylation of enzymes occurs downstream. Mutation of the RET protooncogene to an oncogene results in constitutive activation of the enzyme, thus causing unregulated phosphorylation of other critical enzymes. Inheritance of one RET oncogene from one affected parent is sufficient to cause MEN-2A syndrome in children. Five distinct mutations involving exons 10 and 11 have been described in 98% of 203 kindreds with the disorder.

39. How should a kindred be screened after the proband with MEN-2A is identified?

40. How is MEN-2A treated?

41. What comprises the MEN-2B syndrome?

42. What findings raise the suspicion of MEN-2B syndrome?

43. How should MEN-2B be treated?

44. What is the overall mortality rate associated with MEN-2B?

45. Summarize the screening recommendations for MEN-2B.

46. What causes MEN-2B?

47. Have the clinical presentations and prognoses of the MEN syndromes changed since the time of their original descriptions?

Yes. When the MEN syndromes were initially described, most patients presented with involvement of all the aforementioned organ systems because diagnostic capabilities were limited. At present, early diagnosis of the proband and aggressive screening of the kindred may permit detection of hyperplasia and prompt prophylactic surgery or medical therapy that limits morbidity and mortality.

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