Melanoma

Published on 04/03/2015 by admin

Filed under Hematology, Oncology and Palliative Medicine

Last modified 22/04/2025

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Chapter 69

Melanoma

Summary of Key Points

Primary Therapy

Treatment of Metastatic Disease

• The median survival for patients with melanoma after distant metastatic disease has been identified is approximately 9 to 12 months.

• Treatment options include molecularly targeted therapy, immune therapy, cytotoxic chemotherapy, and participation in clinical trials.

• All patients with advanced melanoma should have their tumor tissue assessed for the presence or absence of the BRAF V600 E mutation. The presence of the mutation is predictive of response to targeted therapy with BRAF inhibitors.

• Immune therapy options include CTLA-4 inhibition with ipilimumab, high-dose interleukin-2, and clinical trials.

• Cytotoxic chemotherapy options include dacarbazine-based or temozolomide-based therapy.

• Additional supportive and palliative care options should be considered for all patients; brain metastases are managed with surgery and/or radiation therapy, depending on the size and number of lesions.

Self-Assessment Questions

1. A 33-year-old man with stage III melanoma is receiving high-dose interferon (IFN) therapy. He has completed the 4 weeks of daily intravenous (IV) therapy and is now in the fifth month of maintenance subcutaneous therapy with IFN. Laboratory studies from yesterday revealed a normal complete blood cell count (CBC) and differential count, but the serum bilirubin level was 1.9 mg/dL, the aspartate aminotransferase level was 510 units/mL, and the alanine aminotransferase level was 420 units/mL. The patient feels well at this time except for fatigue. Physical examination last week was within normal limits. Which of the following options should you recommend regarding therapy?

(See Answer 1)

2. A 65-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with a 0.87-mm-thick melanoma. No ulceration was present, it was determined to be Clark level III, and the mitotic count was zero. The melanoma arose from her right posterior calf. In addition to blood work (CBC, chemistry panel, and lactate dehydrogenase), which of the following evaluations for staging are appropriate for this patient?

(See Answer 2)

3. A 44-year-old man was recently diagnosed with stage IV melanoma. Staging workup showed multiple liver metastases and lung metastases. Symptoms at this time include mild shortness of breath, cough, and fatigue with a 15-lb weight loss. Mutation testing for BRAF confirmed V600E BRAF mutation. What treatment would you recommend now?

(See Answer 3)

4. You are treating a 58-year-old woman who has stage IV melanoma with lung metastases. Treatment with ipilimumab was begun, and returns to your office today for her fourth dose of ipilimumab. She has tolerated therapy well. However, during the past few days, she has noted diarrhea. She reports four to six loose stools per day. She reports mild abdominal cramping with diarrhea. On physical examination, her pulse is 98 and regular, Her blood pressure is 110/82, and she is afebrile. Cutaneous examination shows a mild macular rash on her back. An abdominal examination shows normoactive bowel sounds and no tenderness. The remainder of the examination is normal. Blood was drawn the previous day for laboratory studies, which show a normal CBC, normal liver function tests and electrolytes, and normal thyroid-stimulating hormone. What do you recommend?

(See Answer 4)

5. A 58-year-old woman was diagnosed with malignant melanoma 2 years ago. At that time, the patient presented with a changing mole on her left arm. A biopsy was performed that revealed a superficial spreading melanoma at a depth of 1.6 mm with no ulceration. A sentinel lymph node (SLN) biopsy was performed that was negative for melanoma, and a wide excision was performed, with no residual melanoma. The patient now presents to you for a routine checkup, and physical examination reveals an enlarged 2-cm left axillary lymph node. Which of the following actions would you now advise?

(See Answer 5)

6. You are treating a 45-year-old man with stage IV melanoma and recommend use of vemurafenib. Which of the following adverse effects are most likely?

(See Answer 6)

Answers

1. Answer: E. High-dose IFN therapy is associated with significant toxicity. Patients experience flu-like symptoms such as fatigue, fever, chills, myalgias, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and headache. Significant laboratory abnormalities include elevated hepatic transaminase levels, neutropenia, elevated triglyceride levels, thyroid dysfunction, and anemia. It is critical that patients undergoing treatment with IFN be monitored closely and that the dose of IFN be modified appropriately for toxicity. Therefore it is recommended that patients undergoing treatment with high-dose IFN have liver function tests monitored weekly during the induction phase and monthly while undergoing the maintenance phase of treatment. If the hepatic transaminase (alanine aminotransferase/serum glutamate oxaloacetate transaminase) levels rise to >5× the upper limit of normal, then IFN treatment should be temporarily discontinued until they normalize. IFN treatment should be restarted at 50% of the previous dose. Similarly, if granulocytes decrease <500/mm3, treatment should be withheld until normalization, and the IFN dose should then be reduced by 50%.

2. Answer: A. The staging evaluation of a patient with a low-risk melanoma should include a physical examination including a skin examination, chest radiograph, and blood work. The majority of patients who present with melanoma do not have a distant metastatic disease at presentation; therefore extensive evaluations with CT scans to search for distant metastases have an extremely low yield and consequently are not indicated in asymptomatic patients. More extensive staging evaluation with CT scans of the chest/abdomen/pelvis can be considered in patients with high-risk disease (i.e., a thick primary melanoma >4 mm thick or node-positive disease) for whom the risk of distant metastatic disease is higher.

3. Answer: A. In this patient with symptomatic metastatic melanoma, the most appropriate choice would be vemurafenib, a highly potent and selective BRAF inhibitor. Vemurafenib treatment is associated with an approximately 50% response rate. Clinical benefit has been seen within 72 hours of administration. Therapy with high-dose IL-2, IFN, and chemotherapy would not be appropriate next steps given the low response rate associated with these treatments. No role exists for cetuximab, which targets the epidermal growth factor receptor.

4. Answer: C. Ipilimumab is associated with significant toxicities that are immune-related adverse events. These immune-mediated reactions may involve any organ system; however, the most common immune adverse reactions are enterocolitis, hepatitis, dermatitis, neuropathy, and endocrinopathy. Treatment of immune-mediated toxicity requires interruption of ipilimumab and use of corticosteroids, depending on the severity of symptoms. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has created a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy to provide additional information regarding adverse effects and management of ipilimumab-associated adverse events. Therefore it is recommended that patients undergoing treatment with ipilimumab be monitored closely with physical examinations, review of symptoms, and blood tests including liver and thyroid function before starting and during treatment. Dose modification occurs through withholding a dose, not dose reduction.

    This patient has moderate diarrhea and a mild rash; therefore therapy should be withheld until symptoms resolve. Unless an alternative etiology has been identified, these signs and symptoms of enterocolitis should be considered immune mediated. Antidiarrheal agents can be started and a workup to consider other etiologies, including the possibility of endoscopic evaluation, should be initiated. Ipilimumab should be withheld until improvement to mild severity or complete resolution of diarrhea. Systemic steroids should be started if the diarrhea persists for more than 1 week or it should be started sooner if signs and symptoms worsen. As long as the patient improves, there is no reason to permanently discontinue treatment with ipilimumab in this patient.

5. Answer: B. SLN mapping has largely replaced elective lymph node dissections in patients with early-stage melanoma. This technique can identify the draining lymph node most likely to be involved with melanoma. SLN mapping may be considered in patients with melanomas >1 mm thick or in thinner lesions with worrisome histologic features such as ulceration or a Clark level of IV or V. The false-negative rate for SLN biopsy is approximately 4%. Thus in this patient, who later experiences palpable adenopathy due to melanoma, a biopsy should be performed to confirm clinical suspicions of recurrent melanoma. If the FNA or biopsy are positive for melanoma, than a therapeutic lymph node dissection should be performed, which is potentially curable. IFN therapy or enrollment in a clinical trial could be considered after the surgery is completed.

6. Answer: C. Vemurafenib, a potent and selective BRAF inhibitor, was approved by the FDA for treatment of V600E BRAF mutant melanoma, including unresectable stage III or stage IV melanoma. The most common adverse effects associated with vemurafenib are fever, arthritis, and skin changes, including rash and hyperproliferative lesions. Cutaneous squamous cell carcinomas or keratoacanthoma can occur in approximately 25% of patients treated with vemurafenib. Based on the frequent skin-associated adverse events, patients undergoing treatment with vemurafenib should be counseled to perform regular self-examination of their skin and report any new or changing skin lesions to their physicians. Additionally, patients starting therapy should be advised of sun-protective measures. Dermatologic skin examinations should be performed before the initiation of therapy and every 2 months while undergoing therapy. Arthralgias and arthritis associated with vemurafenib at times requires treatment with corticosteroids.

SEE CHAPTER 69 QUESTIONS